Definitions/Descriptions

1. Question: Describe the type of lesions found in psoriasis & seborrheic and actinic keratosis.
2. Question: Describe the skin lesions found in Varicella (chickenpox) and herpes zoster (shingles).
3. Question: Describe the pathogenetic mechanism of polycystic ovarian syndrome (POS).
4. Question: Describe Hirschsprung’s disease.
5. Question: Define marasmus and kwashiorkor.
6. Question: Define deafferentation pain.
7. Question: Describe myofascial pain syndrome.
8. Question: Describe neuropathic pain.
9. Question: Describe  rticarial as seen in an allergic reaction.
10. Question: What is a varicocele?
11. Question: Describe the pathophysiology of cystic fibrosis.
12. Question: Describe Raynaud’s disease.
13. Question: What medical term is used to identify an inflammatory disorder of the skin that is often considered synonymous with dermatitis and characterized by pruritus with lesions that have an indistinct border?
14. Question: What is a painless diverticulum of the epididymis located between the head of the epididymis and the testis called?
15. Question: Describe intestinal malrotation.
16. Question: What is the medical term for a fungal infection of the nail plate?

Content Questions

1. Question: What type of necrosis is associated with wet gangrene?
2. Question: After ovulation, the uterine endometrial cells divide under the influence of estrogen. This process is an example of hormonal_____________.
3. Question: Removal of part of the liver leads to the remaining liver cells undergoing compensatory___________.
4. Question: Why is insulin used to treat hyperkalemia?
5. Question: What 3 substances influence the calcium and phosphate balance in the body?
6. Question: What is the risk for the recurrence of autosomal dominant diseases?
7. Question: What cancer does human herpes virus (HHV) 8 cause?
8. Question: The BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations increase the risk of which cancer in women?
9. Question: How is chronic myelogenous leukemia diagnosed?
10. Question: How does obesity act as an important risk factor for type 2 diabetes mellitus?
11. Question: What does hypomethylation and the resulting effect on oncogenes result in?
12. Question: Which component of the plasma protein system tags pathogenic microorganisms for destruction by neutrophils and macrophages?
13. Question: What causes meconium ileus?
14. Question: Which cell is the body’s primary defense against parasitic invasion?
15. Question: What type of immunity is produced when an immunoglobulin crosses the placenta?
16. Question: Which antibody initially indicates a typical primary immune response?
17. Question: During an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, which leukocyte is activated?
18. Question: Tissue damage caused by the deposition of circulating immune complexes containing an antibody against the host DNA is the cause of which disease?
19. Question: List 4 disorders which are considered autoimmune.
20. Question: Which organism is a common sexually transmitted bacterial infection?
21. Question: What does stress-induced sympathetic stimulation of the adrenal medulla cause secretion of?
22. Question: What is the effect of increased secretions of epinephrine, glucagon, and growth hormone?
23. Question: What disorder results from collection of fluid in the tunica vaginalis?
24. Question: What is the most commonly reported symptom of cancer treatment?
25. Question: Research has shown a link between cancer and which sexually transmitted disease?
26. Question: What is the function of arachnoid villi?
27. Question: What provides the collateral blood flow to the brain?
28. Question: Dilation of the ipsilateral pupil, following herniation, is the result of pressure on which cranial nerve (CN)?
29. Question: What is the central component of the pathogenic model of multiple sclerosis?
30. Question: What hematologic disorder is diagnosed by the Philadelphia chromosome?
31. Question: Where is antidiuretic hormone (ADH) synthesized, and where does it act?
32. Question: What is diabetes insipidus the result of?
33. Question: Renal failure is the most common cause of which type of hyperparathyroidism?
34. Question: What directly causes ovulation during the menstrual cycle?
35. Question: What condition results from the rotation of a testis, which twists blood vessels of the spermatic cord?
36. Question: Identify the functions of the following cranial nerves.
37. Question: Which virus is a precursor for developing cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) and cervical cancer?
38. Question: The risk of which cancer is greater if the man has a history of cryptorchidism?
39. Question: Which age group should be targeted for testicular cancer education and screening?
40. Question: Which organism is responsible for the development of syphilis?
41. Question: Which is a characteristic lesion of secondary syphilis?
42. Question: Which skin disorder results in an elevated, firm circumscribed area less than 1 cm in diameter?
43. Question: What does celiac sprue cause?
44. Question: Which substance is used to correct the chronic anemia associated with chronic renal failure?
45. Question: After a person has a subtotal gastrectomy for chronic gastritis, which type of anemia will result?
46. Question: When considering hemolytic anemia, why does jaundice occur?
47. Question: What type of cancer could HPV cause?
48. Question: Hemophilia A is considered to be what type of inherited disorder?
49. Question: Which type of cancer could Helicobacter pylori cause?
50. Question: In which type of pleural effusion does the fluid become watery and diffuse out of the capillaries as a result of increased blood pressure or decreased capillary oncotic pressure?
51. Question: Which hormone is required for water to be reabsorbed in the distal tubule and collecting duct?
52. Question: With which medical diagnosis is meconium ileus often associated?
53. Question: What type of fracture occurs at a site of a preexisting bone abnormality is a result of a force that would not normally cause a fracture?
54. Question: Considering the pathophysiologic process of osteoporosis, which hormone exerts antiapoptotic effects on osteoblasts but proapoptotic effects on osteoclasts?
55. Question: Which disorder is characterized by the formation of abnormal new bone at an accelerated rate beginning with excessive resorption of spongy bone?
56. Question: Which medical diagnosis is described as a chronic inflammatory joint disease characterized by stiffening and fusion of the spine and sacroiliac joints?
57. Question: People with gout are at high risk for which co-morbid condition?
58. Question: An insufficient dietary intake of which vitamin can lead to rickets in children?
59. Question: Which virus is associated with infectious mononucleosis?
60. Question: Which protein, absent in muscle cells of Duchenne muscular dystrophy, mediates the anchoring of skeletal muscle fibers to the basement membrane?
61. Question: What is the most common malignant bone tumor diagnosed during childhood?
62. Question: Chickenpox (varicella) may be followed years later by which disorder?
63. Question: The staff member of a crowded day care center is a source for which bacterial infection?
64. Question: Which of the following disorders has a mode of inheritance similar to hemophilia A?
65. Question: Which organism could cause stomach cancer?
66. Question: List 3 types/conditions of arteritis.
67. Question: List 3 conditions jaundice could be attributed to.
68. Question: What is the primary cause of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) of the newborn?
69. Question: What is the most common cause of uncomplicated urinary tract infections?
70. Question: List 4 conditions that prerenal injury from poor perfusion can result from.
71. Question: In immunoglobulin G (IgG) nephropathies such as glomerulonephritis, IgG is deposited in which location?
72. Question: By what mechanism does intussusception cause an intestinal obstruction?

Clinical Scenarios

1. Question: A patient presents with vomiting a coffee-ground looking substance; fatigue, postural hypotension; new onset systolic murmur; and cool, pale peripheries……….Using the information above, evaluate the lab findings (indicate low, normal, or high).
2. Question: A person diagnosed with type 1 diabetes experiences hunger, lightheadedness, tachycardia, pallor, headache, and confusion. What is the most probable cause of these symptoms?
3. Question: After a partial gastrectomy or pyloroplasty, clinical manifestations that include increased pulse, hypotension, weakness, pallor, sweating, and dizziness are the results of which mechanism?
4. Question: Klinefelter’s syndrome is a chromosomal abnormality with an XXY outcome. What does that mean for the patient?
5. Question: On review of a patient’s X-ray, you discover punched out lesions. What disease is responsible?
6. Question: Provide two examples of nutrition related anemia. Provide the correct medical terminology (size and shape). Include how you would evaluate a CBC for the findings of this type of anemia.
7. Question: A patient is diagnosed with pulmonary disease and elevated pulmonary vascular resistance. Which form of heart failure may result from pulmonary disease and elevated pulmonary vascular resistance?
8. Question: Which compensatory mechanism is spontaneously used by children diagnosed with Tetralogy of Fallot to relieve hypoxic spells?
9. Question: What are the TLC, FEV1, and V/Q for silicosis (increased, decreased, normal).
10. Question: A patient presents with right ventricular hypertrophy seen as a right axis deviation on the EKG and a loud systolic murmur heard at the left sternal border. What valve is the cause?